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Septic Tanks Septic tanks operation and maintenance are usually periodic than routine erectile dysfunction treatment by ayurveda effective levitra extra dosage 60 mg. A septic tank constructed properly should not cause operational problem as frequently as smaller on site systems do. The septic tank is designed and constructed to receive sewage from lavatories, kitchen and toilets. If no other waste such as solid waste matter or other non-biodegradable are added to it Septic tanks will not cause any operational problem. Measure the depth of sludge accumulation so that removal will be effected in time d. Check effluents quality and efficiency of treatment facilities (drain field, seepage/soak, pits, chlorination). Make sure that heavy and non-biodegradable waste matters are not channeled to the septic tank. Cesspool Operation and maintenance for cesspool is the same as septic tanks except that there is no effluent from cesspool. The liquid part in the wastewater that enters in the cesspool is percolated through the soil and in the septic tank it comes out as supernatant through the effluent pipe. In this case it may be necessary to pump out sludge from the cesspool incase infiltration is disrupted and it start to fill up. Ecological Sanitation Operation and maintenance problem for ecological sanitation is very routine as compared with other systems. Putting it underground and covering it with soil or diluting it with five parts of water and using it in the garden is another routine activity of the family using ecological sanitation. Waste Stabilization Ponds Because ponds are simple in construction and operation they are probably neglected more than any other system. Many of the problems that arise regarding ponds are the result of neglect or poor maintenance and keeping. Following are the day to day operational and maintenance duties that will help to ensure peak treatment efficiency. Scum Control Scum accumulation is a common characteristic of ponds and is usually greatest in the hotter climate and in springs where the water warms and vigorous biological activity is at its peak. Ordinarily wind action also dissipates scum accumulations and causes them to settle; however, in the absence of wind or in sheltered areas other means of removing scum must be used. Odor Control Odorous condition in almost all cases arises from a wastewater treatment plant no matter what kind of process is used. Most odors are caused by over-loading or poor cleaning and tending practices and can be remedied by taking corrective methods. Weed and Insect Control Weed control is an essential part of good housekeeping and is not formidable task with modern herbicides available. Weeds around the edge are most objectionable because they allow a sheltered area for mosquito breeding and scum accumulation. Levee Maintenance Levee slope erosion caused by wave action or surface runoff from precipitation is probably the most serious maintenance problem. If allowed to continue it will result in a narrowing of the levee crown that will make accessibility with maintenance equipment most difficult? If levee slope is composed of easily erodable material, one longrange solution is the use of bank protection such as stone riprap. Headwork and Screenings the head works or the screenings (bar screen) at the inlet should be clean as frequently as possible. The screen should be inspected at least once or twice a day with more frequent visits during storm periods. Eliminate toxic waste at its source or pre-treat by neutralization and/or dilution. Likely Cause · Decaying organic matter Action to Take · Break up mats with high-pressure water hose or by use of a motorboat, Algae bloom can be prevented by using an approved algaecide. If the pond operation is not too seriously affected, let the daphnia complete their life cycle about 10 to 15 days. Action to Take · the ponds discharge structure should consist of a baffle-inverted weir installed so that all the wastewater must pass under it.

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The detailed information on the drilling positions erectile dysfunction tools purchase 60 mg levitra extra dosage amex, core samples, geological vertical and horizontal profiles and conclusions are given in the Site Assessment Report. The assessment of soil sorts and their properties were first based on a visual survey as well as on available soil and land use maps. Then four preliminary drillings were made in parallel with the marking process to provide information for the final definition of the landfill boarder. When the final contour line of the border was set drillings, excavations, soil (disturbed and undisturbed) core sampling and laboratory analysis were made in order to define the stability / bearing capacity of the soil layers, vulnerability of aquifer, ability of soil to prevent seepage of leachate water into aquifers. Soil types were also assessed to decide their suitable for using at construction of the landfill and for covering the dump surface during the operation. The boreholes were needed to take core samples from different depth in the ground and check the groundwater levels. The investigations targeted at revealing the geological information such as lithological content of soils, ground water levels and other necessary data. Based on soil characteristics identified in the boreholes, five longitudinal geologic-lithological profiles were drawn up in scale of 1:1000 in horizontal and 1:100 in vertical directions (see in Site Assessment Report). For the clayey soils angle of internal fraction (C) and rated compression resistance (R0) were defined on the site by Penetrometer and vane. Disturbed structure of clayey soils were taken from holes 7; 8; 9 and 10 in order, in total 25 core samples and sent to the laboratories. Laboratory tests were of standard types and looked at inter alia plasticity, consistency and natural humidity. Also four pits of 5 m depth were excavated and 11 soils samples of undisturbed structure were taken. Water samples were taken from boreholes 1; 8 and 5 and also two samples were taken from unnamed creek (brook) passing through the future landfill site. Based on these surveys the conclusions are as follows; Concerning the bearing capacity of the soil two major questions were investigated, namely, the settlement and lateral stability of the ground layer under the load of the dump 2 pile. Based on assessment by geological expertise, the weakest soil type would give a consolidation settlement approximately 40 cm at those places where this soil type occupies 8 m thick layer. The judgement of lateral stability can be proved by the experiences gained during the construction works in identical conditions in Ajara. The consolidation settlement has been around 20 cm for 27 10 years and no lateral movement of soil was observed under the monolith. The upper soil-plant layer of 20 cm depth should be removed and the area should be backfilled by clay and loam soil to the ground surface elevation of 28 m of sea level. The landfill ground should be compacted / compressed when the landfill bottom is being prepared. This work will further improve the ground stability and facilitate the protection of the soil waters. The western part of Ajara constitute of coastal zone of Black Sea where the landfill site will be constructed (Figure 1). The zone is defined as seaside damp subtropical climatic zone, which comprises whole West Georgia and extends to the Likhi mountain ridge. Climate of this zone is formed under influence of its location on the border between subtropical and moderate latitudes, circulation processes in the atmosphere and the orographic patterns. Due to the influence of the mountain ridges bordering from three sides, the damp, unstable air masses coming from the West ­ from the Black Sea, undergo convergence and then ascending flow up the west slopes of mountains. This causes the formation here of a damp climate, with big amount of precipitation almost any time of the year, against the background of high thermal regime. Mountain ridges are going down directly to the sea shore and preventing the intrusion of eastern cold air masses to the shore. The narrow coastal strip along the Black Sea in Ajara represents the Kakhaberi lowland, which comprises the extreme south-west part of the Kolkheti Lowland. Strong and warm air masses from the Mediterranean Sea are passing through Bosporus towards the east coast of the Black Sea and those warm up the Ajara coast considerably during the winter period. The average temperature in the coldest months (January and February) is around o o o 4.


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It is strongly recommended to erectile dysfunction drug overdose order 40mg levitra extra dosage with visa screen first-degree relatives for highrisk genotypes C. It is appropriate to screen adult first-degree relatives every 5 years and children every 12­18 months. Patients who undergo genetic testing should also undergo counseling by someone knowledgeable in the genetics of cardiovascular disease so that results and their clinical significance can be appropriately reviewed with the patient C. Calcium channel blocker as positive lusiotropic agents to improve cardiac performance C. Consider dual-chamber pacer with short atrioventricular delay to cause asynchronous septal contraction and elimination of obstruction D. A 42-year-old man presents with shortness of breath, tingling of fingers, vague abdominal pains, and blurred vision. The cardiac enzymes were negative and the coronary angiogram was completely normal. An echocardiogram, which is technically difficult, shows normal left ventricle and valvular function. The right ventricle seems to be mildly dilated with a tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion of 15 mm. A 28-year-old man with no prior history presented with shortness of breath on minimal exertion. A 43-year-old woman with no prior medical history presented with a 4 month history of shortness of breath (see Figure 12. There was no prior medical history, and she denied use of alcohol or recreational drugs. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the amount of residual scar in the ventricular septum after surgical myectomy versus septal ablation? Regarding residual outflow obstruction after surgical myectomy versus septal ablation, which of the following statements is most accurate? It is strongly recommended to screen first-degree relatives for highrisk genotypes. In the absence of genotyping the index case, it is inappropriate to screen relatives for possible mutations. Genetic testing is not indicated in relatives when the index patient does not have a definitive pathogenic mutation. Genetic testing is indicated in relatives when the index patient does not have a definitive pathogenic mutation as sporadic mutations may occur. As the genotype is positive, periodic screening for phenotype is indicated even in the absence of symptoms or physical signs as an echocardiogram is a lot more sensitive. As a matter of fact, its anticholinergic properties may increase the heart rate slightly. Despite initial enthusiasm, subsequent studies have not supported the use of a pacemaker to eliminate gradient. Dopamine, dobutamine, and norepinephrine have beta stimulant properties and would worsen outflow obstruction. This is an X-linked recessive disease with manifest phenotype in males with wide variation in expressivity and penetrance. It is due to defective alpha glycosidase A deficiency, which leads to its deposition in nerves, vessels, intestines, cornea, heart, and kidneys. Hence, it may lead to cardiac hypertrophy, renal failure, hypertension, visual defects, and neuropathy. It is an orphan disease, and enzyme therapy is available at an annual cost of about $200 000. Option A is consistent with mid left anterior descending coronary artery lesion, and option C with Takatsubo syndrome. The apical tip bulging does contract in systole, indicating it has muscular wall (muscular type of diverticulum). Neither the aneurysm nor pseudoaneurysm contract; aneurysm has a wide neck and pseudoaneurysm has a narrow neck.


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Each trait pair gives phenotypic ratio 3:1 in F2 erectile dysfunction fpnotebook 40 mg levitra extra dosage sale, which is provided by inde pendent assortment o f homologues chromosomes in meiosis. In polyhybrid cross, the acquired ratio o f hybrids in F2 can be described by formula (3+1)*n, where "n" - is number o f alternative traits pairs. The same probability o f all kinds o f gamete formation by all hybrids while monohybrids cross. The same probability o f all kinds o f gamete formation on a basis o f independent assortment o f non homologous chromosomes in meiosis while dihybrid and polyhibryd cross. That means splitting occurs in haploid gametes, on a level o f genes and chromosomes, but it is analyzed in diploid organisms on a level o f traits. During such period many environmental factors may act on gametes and developing organisms. Therefore, to analyze it, we need to use several statistic methods which allow to prove inherited theoretical ratio principle or to deny it. Analyzing patterns of heredity in garden pea Mendel worked with several traits pairs. The definite knowledge o f traits and their description are the aims of medi cal genetics. Among them are achondroplasia, diabetes insipidus, albinism, pancreas fibrosis, syndactilia, glaucoma, hemophilia, and so on. Thus, if in 1958 it was known only 412 hereditary human traits, in 1978-2511, in 1981-3217. The level o f trait expression depends on number o f dominant polymeric genes that means on gene dose. The human height is determined by interaction of three allelic gene pairs, using principle o f cumulative polymeria: A and a, and b, C and c. There are four dominant genes P I, P2, P3 and P4, which are presented in double dose. If all genes in genotype are dominant, skin pigmentation is maximal like in native Africans (P1P1P2P2P3P3P4P4). If all genes are recessive, skin pigmentation is minimal like in European Caucasians (plplp2p2p3p3p4p4). Polygenic heredities are directed by following rules: - Variations o f quantitative traits depend on dominant genes number o f poly meric genes. The more polygenes are in genotype, the larger ampli tude o f traits variation the species has. It depends on genetic factors, environmental factors, and individual development and so on. Among genetic factors affecting phenotype formation are interactions o f genes from one allele (dominance, recessing, incomplete dominance, codominance) and from d ifferen t alleles (dom inant and recessiv e ep istasis, hypostasis, complementarity), from many alleles, pleiotropic gene action, gene dose. The dominance is such interaction when one dominant allele (A) is expressed independently from others recessive alleles (a). Heterozygous organisms have brown eyes, so that mean that brown eyes color is dominant where blue is recessive. In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous individuals express neither dominated phenotype nor recessive phenotype. Heterozygous individuals express an inter mediate phenotype with slight deviance to dominant or recessive one. The similar examples are inheritance o f sickle cell anemia, acatalasia (ab sence of catalase enzyme) and others. This method is used in genetic counseling to determine heterozy gous individuals having recessive alleles o f hereditary diseases. The complementary or accessory genes are the genes, which can give a new trait when they are both in genotype (A-B-). In human complementary interaction occurs in heredity o f normal hearing and deafness. Complementary usually leads to new traits for mation, which were absent in parents. In dominance, one gene is suppressed by another from same allele: A>a, B>b and so on. However, there is another type o f interaction when one gene is sup pressed by another from different allele: C>D, A>b, O d and so on. Such effect is ex plained by suppression effect o f "Bombay phenomenon" gene in recessive homozygous state (hh).

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These include: an uncontrollable drug craving benadryl causes erectile dysfunction buy generic levitra extra dosage 60 mg, restlessness, anxiety, and depression. Drug use reduces both physical and psychological withdrawal symptoms and promote mood elevation. Withdrawal symptoms (from A painful condition that occurs in the absence of the next dose of drugs. Classification of opioids by origin, chemical structure and affinity to opiate receptors. Essential medicines from narcotic analgesics group and their comparative characteristics (Morphine hydrochloride, Omnopon, Codeine phosphate, Promedol, Fentanyl, Pentazocine, Tramadol, Buprenorphine). Effect of Morphine on breathing, cough and vomiting center, circulation and tone of smooth muscles of internal organs. Antagonists of narcotic analgesics, their mechanisms of action (Naloxone, Naltrexone), application. A 4 year old child was admitted to the orthopaedic department with shin fracture together with displacement. Skin is cold, pupils are delayed, breathing is heavy, with cycles of the Cheyne-Stokes type, blood pressure is decreased, urinary bladder is overloaded. A Narcotic analgesics B Sedatives C Non-narcotic analgesics D -cholinergic antagonists E 4. A Narcotic analgetics B Tranquilizers C Nonnarcotic analgetics D Muscarinic receptor blockers E 7. A patient with myocardium infarction was prescribed an analgetic in order to stop pain syndrome. The patient felt better but overdose caused weakness, myosis, respiratory depression. A synthetic analgesic agent which increases contractile activity of myometrium and relaxes the neck (cervix) of uterus was prescribed to a woman in labour. A patient has signs of acute poisoning by morphine: sharp miosis, loss of consciousness, decrease of the arterial blood pressure and Cheyne-Stokes respiration. A 30 years old man was admitted to a hospital due to fracture of the crus with dislocation and expressed pain syndrome. Naloxone was introduced to a 25 years old woman because of intoxication by morphine. A drug addict was admitted to the emergency department in coma with signs of poisoning by opioid analgesics. A 52-years-old patient who had been suffering from urolithiasis was delivered to the emergency department with renal colic. A doctor administered atropine together with opioid analgesic with spasmolytic activity to prevent development of the pain shock. Nonopioid analgesic was administered to the patient with neuritis of nervus trigeminus. This drug has fast effect, short time of action, can cause allergic reaction of immidiate type. Pains in the small of the back developed after the lifting of gravity (heavy loads). It is known from the anamnesis that the patient was suffering from ulcer of the duodenal bulb for a long period of time. Gum bleeding arose in the patient after extraction of the tooth, rom anamnesis it was revealed that the patient suffered from rheumatic arthritis, and was treated with the anti-inflammatory agent acetyl-salicylic acid(aspirin). A patient with respiratory disease with high temperature took the drug from the group of non-opioid analgesics. This drug exerts predominantly anti-inflammatory action which excels the salicilates and butadionum. After through clinical examination the following diagnosis was made: myositis, peptic ulcer of the stomach in remession, leukopenia. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents are used for the treatment of following pains, except: A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent was administered to a patient with rheumatic polyarthritis. Indicate the synthetic opioid analgasic which possesses analgesic activity 100-400 times more than morphine.

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These events are frequently attributed to erectile dysfunction caused by vasectomy generic 60 mg levitra extra dosage with mastercard epilepsy as they often arise seemingly out of character. Uncontrolled rage occurring in the context of epileptic seizures is also unprovoked, however the anger is usually undirected or reactive, the episodes occur in isolation and other manifestations of a seizure disorder are frequently present. Interestingly, however, a significant proportion of patients demonstrate non-specific diffuse or focal slowing not attributable to drowsiness or the effects of medication. So although the rage attacks themselves may not have an epileptic basis, the two conditions may be pathogenetically linked. Prolonged confusional or fugue states Acute neurological conditions, such as non-convulsive status epilepticus, intracranial infections, head injuries, ischaemic events and drug intoxication or withdrawal may result in an acute confusional state. Systemic disorders may also give rise to episodes of acute encephalopathy and transient loss of consciousness such as renal or hepatic failure and endocrine and metabolic abnormalities, the most common of which is hypoglycaemia related to insulin therapy in diabetes mellitus. Other precipitants of hypoglycaemia include alcohol, insulinomas, rare inborn metabolic abnormalities, such as congenital deficiencies of gluconeogenic enzymes, and renal or hepatic disease. The symptoms of hypoglycaemia are protean, and include visual disturbance, diaphoresis, confusion, unconsciousness, and altered behaviour including irritability and aggression. Peri-oral and acral paraesthesias, ataxia, tremor and dysarthria are common features, leading to diagnostic confusion unless an accurate history and appropriate laboratory investigations are performed. The rare disorders of phaeochromocytoma, carcinoid syndrome and hypocalcaemia may also present with confusion, presyncope or syncope and the hypocalcaemic sensory disturbance may be mistaken as an epileptic aura81. Attacks last between minutes and hours, with six hours being the average duration. The ability to lay down new memories gradually recovers, leaving only a dense amnesic gap for the duration of the episode and a variable degree of retrograde amnesia. Possible underlying mechanisms include cortical spreading depression or venous congestion. Inconsistencies in cognition and mental state are often elucidated if the patient is examined during an episode, which may be prolonged, lasting days or even weeks. Summary In conclusion, there are a large number of neurological and cardiac conditions which result in paroxysmal clinical events and although the causes are multiple and diverse, the clinical manifestations may be similar. The attainment of an accurate and detailed history from the patient and a witness is essential in differentiating these conditions. The application of appropriate investigations frequently increases clinical yield and directs apposite therapy. Nevertheless, misdiagnosis is common and may have profound physical, psychosocial and socioeconomic consequences for the patient, and economic implications for the health and welfare services References 1. Requests for electroencephalography in a district general hospital: retrospective and prospective audit. The cost of epilepsy in the United Kingdom: an estimation based on the results of two population-based studies. Syncope in a population of healthy young adults; incidence, mechanisms, and significance. Syncope in an elderly, institutionalised population: prevalence, incidence, and associated risk. The postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome: definitions, diagnosis, and management. Clinical characteristics of vasodepressor, cardioinhibitory, and mixed carotid sinus syndrome in the elderly. Syncope in advanced heart failure: high risk of sudden death regardless of origin of syncope. The utility of implantable loop recorders for diagnosing unexplained syncope in 100 consecutive patients: five-year, single-center experience. Randomized assessment of syncope trial: conventional diagnostic testing versus a prolonged monitoring strategy. Effect of patient characteristics on the yield of prolonged baseline head-up tilt testing and the additional yield of drug provocation. Prospective evaluation of day-to-day reproducibility of upright tilt-table testing in unexplained syncope.

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In a large study causes of erectile dysfunction in 50s discount 60 mg levitra extra dosage with amex, increase in fasting glucose was associated with 17% increased risk of future cardiovascular events or death C. The correlation between hyperglycemia and microvascular disease is less strong than macrovascular disease with a 37% increased risk for retinopathy or renal failure with 1% increase in A1C D. Which of the following statements is not true regarding renal disease in diabetes? Evidence suggests that presence of diabetic kidney disease in type 2 diabetes is associated with an increased risk of mortality B. It is recommended to screen yearly for diabetic kidney disease in all type 2 diabetes patients D. Goals of care for patients with diabetic kidney disease include preventing progression to end-stage renal disease and reducing the risks of cardiovascular events and death E. Which of the following statements regarding type 1 diabetes mellitus and glycemic control is not true? Strict glycemic control in type 1 diabetes patients can delay the onset of retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy B. Strict glycemic control can slow the progression of existing microvascular disease C. Strict glycemic control is associated with higher (threefold) risk of hypoglycemia 18. Regarding sex differences and outcomes in diabetes, which of the following is not true? Women with diabetes have a twofold excess risk for cardiovascular disease compared with men B. Myocardial infarction usually occurs earlier and is associated with higher mortality in women with diabetes compared with men C. Risk of occurrence of heart failure is higher in women with diabetes when compared to men E. Long term survival is less in women undergoing revascularization and also have higher post-surgical mortality when compared to men F. Women with peripheral artery disease respond less well to exercise training when compared with men with and without diabetes 20. Studies have established a link between HbA1C and microvascular and macrovascular complications in initially nondiabetic persons using the new cut points put forth by the American Diabetic Association. In a trial of 262 randomized patients, only combined aerobic and resistance training lowered Hb A1C (mean reduction, 0. The strength of using HbA1C is that it has less biological variability, eliminates the need for a fasting sample, and is a stronger predictor of complications compared with fasting blood glucose. Beta blockers are not considered the drug of first choice in treating hypertension in patients with diabetes. Dipeptidyl peptidase inhibitors are weight neutral, while the rest will result in weight loss when used to treat diabetes. Exercise and lifestyle changes have no benefit in the management of patients with diabetes mellitus. The correlation between hyperglycemia and microvascular disease is less strong than macrovascular disease with a 37% increased risk for retinopathy or renal failure with 1% increase in A1C. In this study, the intensive glycemic control arm was associated with a higher 90-day mortality. The authors followed up this initial study in 2012 and related the cause of excess mortality to moderate­severe hypoglycemia, especially in patients with distributive shock. This may be due to the study population being young (The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial Research Group, 1993). However, studies have shown a reduction in cardiovascular events with strict glycemic control. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial Research Group (1993) the effect of intensive treatment of diabetes on the development and progression of long-term complications in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.

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Relapsing fever is characterized by periods of fever alternating with afebrile intervals doctor for erectile dysfunction in hyderabad order levitra extra dosage 40mg on-line. The rash of zoster is localized although it is caused by the same virus that causes generalized rash in chickenpox. Widal test done for a case of fever showed a titre of 80 for both salmonella 0 and Typhi H antibodies. The results of a second serum sample 1 1 taken a week 320later were 56 for salmonella O &640 for S. The results of urine examination revealed many pus cells and a bacterial count of 106 bacteria/ml. Case: (Total 9 marks) 91 A 54-year-old man develops a pyogenic infection along the suture line after knee surgery. Culture on blood agar showed growth of beta-hemolytic colonies that were catalase & coagulase positive. What is (are) the possible source(s) of this infection & how can you trace this source? Why is antibiotic susceptibility testing important for guiding the treatment of this case? What are the infection control measures that should be done to prevent the spread of this infection to other patients in the hospital? Microscopic examination for stool sample revealed a structure as shown in the following figure: 1- What is your provisional d1agnosis? Case 3: (6 marks) A lady came to dermatology clinic suffering from acne-like lesions & comedones (black heads). On examination, the doctor noticed that the lesions are located around the mouth & chin as shown in the figure below: 1- What is your probable diagnosis? The following statement about schistosomiasis is true: a- Schistosomulae penetrate the skin or mucous membrane b- Praziquantel is effective against all Schistosoma species. The following parasite is tissue dwelling, causing cystic cavities in the lung with brownish purulent sputum and eosinophilia: a- Echinococcus granulosus b- Paragonimus westermani c- Entamoeba histolytica d- Ascaris lumbricoides 3. House dust mites cause allergic manifestations because: a- They are blood sucking causing itching and dermatitis b- They live in hair follicles causing erythema and scaling c- Their bodies and excreta are potent allergens d- They burrow tunnels in the horny layer of the skin 4. The following parasite is transmitted cylodevelopmentally by its vector: a- Leishmania donovani b- Wuchereria bancrofti 114 c- Plasmodium vivax d- Trypanosoma cruzi 5. Serology is the usual method of diagnosis of: a- Taeniasis b- Giardiasis c- Trichomoniasis d- Visceral larva migrans 6. The following parasite infects the billiary tract a- Taenia solium b- Entamoeba coli c- Trichuris trichiura d- Microsporidia 7. Malabsorption and atrophy of the villi may be caused by the following intracellular intestinal parasite: a- Giardia lamblia b- Capillaria philippinensis c- Cyclospora cayetanensis d- Strongyloides stercoralis 8. Man can be infected with eggs of the following cestode: a- Taenia saginata b- Hymenoleps diminuta c- Taenia solium d- Dipylidium caninum 11. Norwegian (crusted) scabies a- Is a mild form of scabies 115 b- Occurs in immunodeficient patients c- Crusts are formed due to treatment d- Affects the interfigital spaces only 12. Leishmania donovani evades the immune system through: a- Cleavage of antibodies b- Acceleration of decay of complement c- Antigen mimicry d- Inibition of macrophages 13. In intestinal amboebiasis: a- Invasion of the muvosa usually occurs in the caecum b- the stool is alkaline with scanty faecal matter c- Malabsorption is a common complication d- Scraping fgrom the lesions shows the quadrinucleate cyst stage 15. Espundia is seen n patients from: a- North Africa b- South Africa c- North Africa d- South Africa 16. Isospora multiplies in: a- the lumen of duodenum b- the lumen of ileum c- the lumen of the large intestine d- the epithelial lining of the small intestine 17. The infective stage for female Anopheles in malaria is the: a- Sporozoite b- Ookinete c- Gametocyte d- Merozoite 18. Oocysts cause auto-infection with the following parasite: a- Cryptosporidium parvum b- Toxoplasma gondii c- Cylospora cayetanensis d- Entamoeba histolytica 20. Charcot-Leyden crystals could be present in stool in: a- Giardiasis b- Balantidiasis c- Amoebiasis d- Cryptosporidiosis 21.


  • https://sites.nationalacademies.org/cs/groups/dbassesite/documents/webpage/dbasse_170042.pdf
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  • https://www.autismspeaks.org/sites/default/files/100_Day_Tool_Kit_Young_Children.pdf
  • https://www.chathamhouse.org/sites/default/files/publications/2016-03-russia-new-tools-giles.pdf
  • https://www.publichealthontario.ca/-/media/documents/faq-legionella.pdf?la=en